Weekly Challenge 37: Magic Bag
Although this problem might sound insoluble with the information
given, the magic bag assures us that there is a nice answer, so let
us proceed!
Suppose that there are $b$ black balls and $w$ white balls in the
bag, and that there are at least two of each (we can think about
the other cases at the end).
Then
$$
\begin{eqnarray}
P(bb) &=& \frac{b}{b+w}\cdot\frac{b-1}{b+w-1}\cr
P(wb) &=& \frac{b}{b+w}\cdot\frac{w}{b+w-1}\cr
P(bw) &=& \frac{w}{b+w}\cdot\frac{b}{b+w-1}\cr
P(ww) &=& \frac{w}{b+w}\cdot\frac{w-1}{b+w-1}
\end{eqnarray}
$$
Although these look complicated, the denominators in each case are
the same.
Since the probabilities are mutually exclusive we know
that
$$
P(bb)+P(ww) = 0.5
$$
Thus,
$$
2b(b-1)+2w(w-1) = (b+w)(b+w-1)
$$
Expanding and rearranging gives us
$$
b^2-b+w^2-w-2wb=0
$$
So, where are we now? We've applied the probability and are left
with an expression involving $w$ and $b$. This can be factorised
as
$$
(b-w)^2=b+w
$$
Some thought should convince you that this expression is satisfied
if $b$ and $w$ are consecutive triangle numbers. But we need to
ask: are there any other solutions? We need to ask this because for
any choice of $w$ there will be up to $2$ solutions for $b$ upon
solving the equation. The quadratic formula tells us that for any
given $w$
$$
b=\frac{1+2w\pm \sqrt{1+8w}}{2}
$$
Now, we need to impose the condition that $b$ and $w$ are natural
numbers. This would require that $1+8w$ is a square number, say
$N^2$. Then
$$
w =\frac{N^2-1}{8}=\frac{(N+1)(N-1)}{8}
$$
For $w$ to be a natural number, $N$ must be an odd number, which
means that $(N+1)$ and $(N-1)$ are consecutive even numbers, which
means that $\frac{N+1}{2}$ and $\frac{N-1}{2}$ are consecutive
natural numbers. Thus, $w$ is half the product of two natural
number which means that $w$, by definition must be triangular. Thus
there is a solution in this case if and only if $w$ and $b$ are
consecutive triangle numbers bigger than $1$.
Finally, we consider the special cases where there are less then
two of each ball.
Clearly, the balls cannot all be the same colour, as then the
chance of drawing two balls of the same colour would be $1$.
Clearly, there cannot be exactly one ball of each colour, as then
the chance of drawing two balls of the same colour would be $0$. If
there were exactly one black ball and $w> 1$ white balls then the
chance of drawing two balls of the same colour would be
$$
\frac{w}{w+1}\cdot\frac{w-1}{w} = 0.5
$$
This has exactly the two solutions $w=0, 3$. Since $3$ is also
triangular, our rule still holds.
Putting this all together proves that magic bag can, and only
can, contain consecutive triangle numbers of white and black
balls.